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Hi, I tapped IR on the impairment charge and its implications, specifically taxes.

In my first mail I asked (but it was badly worded): "And then, my second question, does the amortisation of these intangible assets over the next 30 years reduce taxable income by the same amount each year, thus reducing taxes to be paid, thus increasing free cash flow?"

And to this I got the response: "The US brand impairment / amortisation is not expected to impact ongoing corporate income tax payments in the USA."

Then I summarised their entire answer to my first mail (which included another question still) and asked them to either kindly confirm or disconfirm, to make sure I understood them correctly. Here's my summary: "The impairment is taken against the US brands (wherever they are sold); the impairment reduces the carrying value of the brands from roughly 78bn to 53bn. The remaining value of 53bn will be amortised over the next 30 years. This amortisation process will in no way reduce taxes BAT will have to pay either in the USA, in the UK at home, or wherever."

And here's their answer: "Yes, that is a great summary. One clarification, not the full 25bn will be allocated against the brands but the majority will be with some remainder against goodwill. Further details will be given in February."

So here we have it, according to IR, there's no beneficial effect on taxes coming from that amortisation.

Or is it possible that the person dealing with my request at IR was just ill-informed ?

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